The Pre-Adamic Race
.... "And God blessed them, and God said unto them, Be fruitful, and multiply, and replenish the earth, and subdue it: and have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over every living thing that moveth upon the earth."
(Gen 1:28 KJV)
.... At first glance, one might wonder how this passage could support such a conclusion. It is entirely based on the word ‘replenish’, which appears only in the King James translation. To ‘replenish’ the earth, it is argued, means that the earth had once been full, was then depleted, and was now being ‘re-filled’. Thus, a prior existence is suggested and the rest in conjectured. But is that what the passage really implies?
.... The Hebrew word in question is the word ‘male’ (pronounced ‘maw-lay’) which simply means ‘to fill’. It does not imply a second or subsequent filling at all, and all other modern Bibles have corrected this error in translation.
.... So it is simply that the King James translators made an unfortunate choice of words. Since this was the only place in the Bible where such a thought could remotely be sustained, correcting it leaves the doctrine of a pre-Adamic race unsupported, and the part about those pre-humans becoming demonic spirits was conjectured from the beginning. Actually, the Bible teaches that demons are fallen angels and were never men at all – Matt 25:41; Rev 12:4.
.... In that episode, even the animals were saved. Why not save a whole race of mankind? This is consistent with God’s character and would therefore be the truth of the matter :
.... "For I am the LORD, I do not change; therefore you are not consumed, O sons of Jacob."
(Mal 3:6; c.f. Num 14:12, 2 Pet 2:5-9, Mark 13:20)
.... Thus when Jesus came, He was called ‘the second Adam’, or ‘the second man’ (1 Cor 15:45-48). Adam was first, and Jesus was second. But if a pre-adamic race had really existed, wouldn’t Adam have been the second man, and Jesus the third?